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MMLU-Pro / 6242 / A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office…

Problem

Answer published by the source. Consult the official source to check your work against its answer.

question

A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?

category

health

options

  1. Acyclovir
  2. Imiquimod
  3. Levofloxacin
  4. Metronidazole

src

ori_mmlu-professional_medicine

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Source and history

upstream_id / Original problem ID
6242
task_id
fdc2f249-a194-5476-b9b7-a4efc2cfab9b
task_key
default--test--6242
task_revision_id
1
config / split
default / test

Official source

initial import