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MMLU-Pro / 6356 / A 46-year-old man with Marfan syndrome, aortic insufficiency, and mitral…

Problem

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question

A 46-year-old man with Marfan syndrome, aortic insufficiency, and mitral regurgitation comes to the emergency department because he has had severe substernal chest pain for the past 3 hours. He describes the pain as tearing in quality and radiating to the neck. One week earlier he experienced similar but less severe chest pain and treated himself with aspirin. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause for his worsening symptoms?

category

health

options

  1. Dissection of the aorta
  2. Pulmonary embolism
  3. Mitral valve prolapse
  4. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
  5. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  6. Ventricular septal defect
  7. Stable angina
  8. Acute myocardial infarction
  9. Esophageal reflux with spasm
  10. Acute bacterial endocarditis

src

ori_mmlu-professional_medicine

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