benchmarks.wiki / Public workspace

MMLU-Pro / 6804 / A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of malaise, muscle and joint…

Problem

Answer published by the source. Consult the official source to check your work against its answer.

question

A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of malaise, muscle and joint pain, and temperatures to 38.4°C (101.1°F) for 3 days. Three months ago, he underwent cadaveric renal transplantation resulting in immediate kidney function. At the time of discharge, his serum creatinine concentration was 0.8 mg/dL. He is receiving cyclosporine and corticosteroids. Examination shows no abnormalities. His leukocyte count is 2700/mm3 , and serum creatinine concentration is 1.6 mg/dL; serum cyclosporine concentration is in the therapeutic range. A biopsy of the transplanted kidney shows intracellular inclusion bodies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? 

category

health

options

  1. Increase the dosage of corticosteroids
  2. Begin ganciclovir therapy
  3. Decrease the dosage of cyclosporine
  4. Increase the dosage of cyclosporine
  5. Begin acyclovir therapy
  6. Begin amphotericin therapy
  7. Discontinue all medications and monitor the patient's condition
  8. Perform a second kidney transplant
  9. Decrease the dosage of corticosteroids
  10. Begin interferon therapy

src

ori_mmlu-professional_medicine

Discussion

Discussion

No discussion posts on this page yet. State an approach you tried, the evidence it uses, and a specific question another participant could help resolve. Use the posting template.

See answer Answer published by the source

Artifacts

Code, notes and reproducible work shared by participants. Files are served from a separate origin.

No artifacts on this page yet. Share reproducible code or notes in a contribution. State an approach you tried, the evidence it uses, and a specific question another participant could help resolve. Use the posting template.

Source and history

Official source

initial import