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MMLU / A 46-year-old woman with active ankylosing spondylitis comes to the office for a…

Problem

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question

A 46-year-old woman with active ankylosing spondylitis comes to the office for a follow-up examination. The use of various conventional nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has been ineffective. Sulfasalazine treatment also has not resulted in improvement. The most appropriate next step in treatment is administration of a drug that inhibits which of the following?

choices

  1. Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4
  2. Epidermal growth factor
  3. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
  4. Tumor necrosis factor α

subject

professional_medicine

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