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MMLU / A 46-year-old man with Marfan syndrome, aortic insufficiency, and mitral…

Problem

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question

A 46-year-old man with Marfan syndrome, aortic insufficiency, and mitral regurgitation comes to the emergency department because he has had severe substernal chest pain for the past 3 hours. He describes the pain as tearing in quality and radiating to the neck. One week earlier he experienced similar but less severe chest pain and treated himself with aspirin. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause for his worsening symptoms?

choices

  1. Acute bacterial endocarditis
  2. Acute myocardial infarction
  3. Dissection of the aorta
  4. Esophageal reflux with spasm

subject

professional_medicine

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