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MMLU / A 35-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of sarcoidosis. His only new…

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question

A 35-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of sarcoidosis. His only new complaint is pain in his legs that increases with weight-bearing. He has been taking glucocorticoid therapy for the past 6 months. Vital signs now are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse 78/min, respirations 14/min, and blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg. The patient is thin and is in no acute distress. Auscultation of the chest discloses scattered bilateral basilar crackles. There is mild left hip pain present with both active and passive range of motion. Dorsalis pedis pulse is intact. Neurologic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

choices

  1. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
  2. Herniated nucleus pulposus
  3. Narrowing of the hip joint
  4. Osteoporosis

subject

professional_medicine

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