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MMLU-Pro / 6803 / A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of malaise, muscle and joint…

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question

A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of malaise, muscle and joint pain, and temperatures to 38.4°C (101.1°F) for 3 days. Three months ago, he underwent cadaveric renal transplantation resulting in immediate kidney function. At the time of discharge, his serum creatinine concentration was 0.8 mg/dL. He is receiving cyclosporine and corticosteroids. Examination shows no abnormalities. His leukocyte count is 2700/mm3 , and serum creatinine concentration is 1.6 mg/dL; serum cyclosporine concentration is in the therapeutic range. A biopsy of the transplanted kidney shows intracellular inclusion bodies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

category

health

options

  1. Increase the dosage of corticosteroids
  2. Begin amphotericin therapy
  3. Increase the dosage of cyclosporine
  4. Perform a second kidney transplant
  5. Discontinue all medications and monitor the patient's condition
  6. Begin ganciclovir therapy
  7. Begin interferon therapy
  8. Decrease the dosage of cyclosporine
  9. Decrease the dosage of corticosteroids
  10. Begin acyclovir therapy

src

ori_mmlu-professional_medicine

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