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MMLU / A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of…

Problem

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question

A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of vaginal bleeding for 2 to 5 days every 2 weeks. The flow varies from light to heavy with passage of clots. Menses previously occurred at regular 25- to 29-day intervals and lasted for 5 days with normal flow. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms inconsistently. Her mother died of colon cancer, and her maternal grandmother died of breast cancer. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 77 kg (170 lb); BMI is 29 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 36.6°C (97.8°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. The uterus is normal sized. The ovaries cannot be palpated. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

choices

  1. Progesterone challenge test
  2. Colposcopy
  3. Cystoscopy
  4. Endometrial biopsy

subject

professional_medicine

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Source and history

task_id
30523b86-be20-5bb3-9e5a-fa3bb012aa8e
task_key
all--test--30523b86-be20-5bb3-9e5a-fa3bb012aa8e
task_revision_id
1
config / split
all / test

Official source

initial import